Frequently Asked Questions
Why is fee-only compensation of critical importance?
A financial planner who has a financial stake (for example, a sales commission) in the course of action that he/she recommends to a client faces an inherent conflict of interest and cannot be considered objective and unbiased. This is true even if the planner truly believes that he/she has only the best interests of the client at heart. Unfortunately, the vast majority of financial advisors in the United States are sellers of financial products and collect sales commissions. Some or all of their income may be dependent on their ability to steer their clients to a limited number of the thousands of financial products available today. These advisors include stock-brokers, analysts, insurance agents, accountants and attorneys, as well as financial planners. Many clients are not aware of their advisors’ dependence on selling products and/or do not recognize the inherent conflict of interest in such arrangements.
- What is comprehensive planning?
- Do I need a financial planner?
- What is a Fee-Only Planner?
- Why is fee-only compensation of critical importance?
- What is the difference between fee-only and fee-based financial planners?
- When do I pay income tax on a regular taxable account?
- What is an institutional fund?
- What is passive portfolio management?
- In layman's terms, what is the Modern Portfolio Theory?
- What is an asset class?
- What is a mutual fund?
- Why choose mutual funds over individual stocks?
- What is the difference between actively managed funds and index funds?
- If index funds serve up average returns, why have they been able to beat most actively managed funds that invest in similar securities over the long run?
- How does diversification lower my risk?
- What is the relationship between risk and return?
- Who will hold my investments?
- How much will it cost?
- How will I be billed?
